Ace GAQM PPM-001 Certification with Actual Questions Jul 22, 2024 Updated
2024 The Most Effective PPM-001 with 225 Questions Answers
GAQM PPM-001 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 22
Constraints do not include:
- A. Collective bargaining
- B. Expected staff assignments
- C. Organizational structure of the performing organization
- D. Impacts of weather
Answer: D
Explanation:
Impacts of weather
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
- A. Exploit
- B. Transfer
- C. Avoid
- D. Mitigate
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 24
What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?
- A. Work breakdown structure update
- B. Responsibility assignment matrix
- C. Project network diagram
- D. Mandatory dependencies list
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which may be employed to shorten a schedule without changing the scope of the task?
- A. Fast tracking or Crashing
- B. Alter to task priorities.
- C. Crashing
- D. Fast tracking.
- E. Releasing resources earlier from tasks which were scheduled with a late start.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 26
True or False: Every company will have the same type of people on their crisis management team.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
The composition of a crisis management team can vary significantly between companies. It is tailored to the specific needs and structure of the organization. While there may be common roles such as a team leader, legal advisor, or communications coordinator, the specific individuals and their expertise will differ based on the company's industry, size, culture, and the nature of the crisis. The Professional in Project Management (PPM) materials emphasize the importance of having a project manager who is calm, decisive, and adaptable, with strong leadership and problem-solving abilities, particularly in a crisis. However, the exact makeup of the team is not standardized across all companies. References: (Professional in Project Management (PPM) Reference Materials source and documents)1.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and relates it to the purpose of the project?
- A. Requirements, expectations, and influence
- B. Interest, expectations, and influence
- C. Requirements, influence, and functional department
- D. Interest, requirements, and functional role
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 28
In order to remain effective and to complete the audits in a reasonable period of time, plan for individual interviews of no more than __________ minutes each.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
In general, project management best practices suggest that individual interviews during audits should be concise to remain effective and respect the time of all involved. While the exact duration can vary depending on the complexity of the audit, shorter interviews are typically encouraged to maintain focus and efficiency. References: For the exact duration recommended by the PPM, please refer to the official PPM study materials and the PMBOK Guide for the specific sections on conducting audits and interviews.
For a detailed understanding, please refer to the official PPM study materials and the PMBOK Guide for the specific sections on conducting audits and interviews.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes?
- A. Quantitative Risk Analysis
- B. Qualitative Risk Analysis
- C. Plan Risk Responses
- D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 30
Who are the audience of project charter?
- A. The project team
- B. stakeholders
- C. The project manager
- D. The senior Project Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter and the audience are the stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project team is in which of the following stages of team development?
- A. Norming
- B. Performing
- C. Forming
- D. Storming
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 32
The following reports are normally developed during the project closure phase?
- A. Communications Management Plan and Closure report
- B. Communications Management Plan and Lessons Learned
- C. Records Archive, Closure Report, lessons learned & Formal Acceptance Report
- D. Records Archive, Closure Report, & Specifications Document
- E. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 33
The inputs of the Performance Reporting process include all of the following except for which one?
- A. Performance reviews
- B. Forecasted completion
- C. Performance measurements
- D. Work performance information
Answer: A
Explanation:
Performance reviews are not an input of the Performance Reporting process. The remaining inputs of this process are quality control measurements, project management plan, approved change requests, and deliverables.
NEW QUESTION # 34
What are the phases of the project life cycle?
- A. Conceptual, planning, execution, and termination
- B. Forming, storming, norming and performing
- C. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control]
- D. Beginning, climax, conclusion
Answer: A
Explanation:
The phases of the project life cycle according to the PMBOK Guide (Project Management Body of Knowledge) by the Project Management Institute (PMI) are as follows:
* Project Initiation: This is where the project is defined and authorized.
* Project Planning: Detailed planning occurs, outlining how the project will be executed.
* Project Execution: The project plan is put into motion and the work required is performed.
* Project Monitoring and Controlling: This phase involves tracking the project's progress and performance to ensure that everything aligns with the plan.
* Project Closure: In this final phase, the project is formally closed and the final product is handed over.
It's important to note that while the option C does not use the exact terminology from the PMBOK Guide, it closely represents the correct sequence of phases in the project life cycle.
References: = The information is verified as per the PMBOK Guide's description of the project management life cycle phases123.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations process?
- A. Issue log
- B. Interpersonal skills
- C. Change register
- D. Stakeholder register
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
- A. Cost Budgeting
- B. Quantitative Risk Analysis
- C. Quality Planning
- D. Cost Control
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 37
A project manager is asked to select a contract type for a new software development project that has complete, detailed requirements. Which is the BEST contract to choose?
- A. Cost reimbursable (CR)
- B. Fixed price (FP)
- C. Time and material (T&M)
- D. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 38
The two main methods of estimating costs are? (Choose two.)
- A. Bottom-right budget
- B. Top-right budget
- C. Bottom-up budget
- D. Top-down budget]
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The bottom-up budgeting approach involves estimating the costs of individual tasks or work packages and then aggregating them to arrive at a total project cost. This method is detailed and thorough, as it considers all aspects of the project at a granular level.
On the other hand, top-down budgeting starts with a total project budget and then allocates amounts to various parts of the project based on estimates or historical data. This method is less detailed and often used when there is a lack of detailed information about every aspect of the project.
Both methods have their advantages and are used at different stages of project planning or when different levels of information are available.
References:
* Project Cost Estimation: How to Estimate Project Cost1.
* Estimating Cost of a Project: Techniques and Examples2.
* Project Cost Estimation Tools and Techniques - PM Certification3.
NEW QUESTION # 39
All of the following statements are true regarding the RBS except for which one?
- A. The lowest level of the RBS can be used as a checklist, which is a tool and technique of the Risk Identification process.
- B. The RBS is similar to the WBS in that the lowest levels of both are easily assigned to a responsible party or owner.
- C. The RBS is contained in the risk management plan.
- D. It describes risk categories, which are a systematic way to identify risks and provide a foundation for understanding for everyone involved on the project.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The RBS describes risk categories, and the lowest level can be used as a checklist to help identify risks. Risk owners are not assigned from the RBS; they're assigned during the Risk Response Planning process.
NEW QUESTION # 40
The sponsor is worried about the seller deriving extra profit on the cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract. Each month the sponsor requires the project manager to submit CPI calculations and an analysis of the cost to complete. The project manager explains to the sponsor that extra profits should NOT be a worry on this project because:
- A. The fee is only received by the seller when the project is completed.
- B. There can only be a maximum 10 percent increase if there is an unexpected cost overrun.
- C. The team is making sure the seller does not cut scope.
- D. All costs invoiced are being audited.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 41
What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
- A. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
- B. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
- C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
- D. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 42
Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
- A. Reserve Analysis
- B. Vendor Bid Analysis
- C. Project Management Software
- D. Expert Judgment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 43
All of the following may hinder a person's ability to transmit/receive a message except:
- A. Preoccupation
- B. Unfamiliarity with topic
- C. Noise
- D. Assuming
- E. Withholding information
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 44
True or False: Pausing to let the other person speak is not an effective probing method. You always need to ask an open question for more information.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
Effective communication is a critical component of project management. Pausing to let the other person speak is indeed an effective probing method. It allows the other person to think and provide more detailed information, which can be crucial for understanding the project's needs and concerns. While open questions are also important as they encourage detailed responses, the power of pause should not be underestimated as it can lead to more thoughtful and comprehensive answers.
References: = The information is based on general communication techniques used in project management, as detailed in resources such as "Probing Questions to Get Beneath the Surface - The Management Center" and
"Communication tips: How to harness the power of pause" from The Enterprisers Project12. These sources emphasize the importance of pausing in conversations to allow for better understanding and more effective communication.
NEW QUESTION # 45
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