Verified ABMM dumps Q&As - Pass Guarantee or Full Refund [Sep-2025]
ABMM PDF Dumps | Sep 01, 2025 Recently Updated Questions
NEW QUESTION # 103
A centrifuge rotor containing capped tubes of sputum concentrate for AFB culture breaks during operation inside a Class II Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC). What is the most appropriate immediate action for the technologist?
- A. Open the centrifuge within the BSC, discard broken glass in a regular sharps container, and clean the spill with 10% bleach.
- B. Carefully remove any intact tubes, wipe them with 70% alcohol, and place them in a new rotor to continue processing.
- C. Immediately turn off the BSC, open the sash fully, and spray disinfectant widely.
- D. Keep the BSC running, notify the supervisor, evacuate the immediate area, and post warning signs.
Allow aerosols to settle (e.g., 30 min) before initiating decontamination with a tuberculocidal disinfectant.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 104
A patient with a history of recurrent sinusitis and bronchitis is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Sputum cultures repeatedly grow a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and produces a blue-green pigment. This organism's chronic colonization of the respiratory tract in cystic fibrosis patients is primarily due to its ability to:
- A. Evade phagocytosis by alveolar macrophages through capsule production.
- B. Form a biofilm that protects it from host defenses and antibiotics.
- C. Exhibit rapid intracellular replication within respiratory epithelial cells.
- D. Produce potent exotoxins that damage the ciliated epithelium.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 105
A patient with a history of neutropenia following chemotherapy develops a rapidly progressive pneumonia.
Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid reveals septate hyphae with acute angle (45-degree) branching. The MOST likely diagnosis is invasive pulmonary aspergillosis caused by:
- A. Mucor species
- B. Rhizopus species
- C. Aspergillus fumigatus
- D. Fusarium species
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 106
A clinical microbiology laboratory is validating a new automated blood culture system. To assess the system's ability to detect true positive results, they should:
- A. Spike known concentrations of various microorganisms into blood culture bottles.
- B. Evaluate the system's performance with samples from patients with known bloodstream infections.
- C. Process a large number of sterile blood samples.
- D. Compare the time to detection with the current manual blood culture method.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 107
An immunocompromised patient develops a disseminated fungal infection. Tissue biopsy reveals small (2-4
µm) yeast cells within macrophages. The patient has a history of living in the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys. The MOST likely causative agent is:
- A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
- B. Histoplasma capsulatum
- C. Penicillium marneffei
- D. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 108
A patient develops severe, watery diarrhea shortly after starting a course of clindamycin. Stool testing using a cytotoxicity assay is positive. This result is most consistent with infection by which organism?
- A. Clostridioides difficile
- B. Norovirus
- C. Campylobacter jejuni
- D. Giardia lamblia
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 109
A clinical microbiology laboratory is implementing a new quality control procedure for blood culture media.
To ensure the media supports the growth of a wide range of clinically significant organisms, they should include:
- A. Only control strains that are commonly found as contaminants.
- B. Only antibiotic-resistant control strains.
- C. A diverse panel of fastidious and non-fastidious bacteria and yeasts.
- D. Only Gram-positive and Gram-negative control strains.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 110
A microbiology laboratory receives a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from a patient with suspected bacterial meningitis. The Gram stain shows Gram-positive diplococci. Culture on blood agar shows alpha-hemolytic colonies that are bile soluble and optochin-sensitive. The MOST likely organism is:
- A. Enterococcus faecalis
- B. Streptococcus agalactiae
- C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- D. Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 111
Microscopic examination of a trichrome-stained stool smear reveals amoebic trophozoites approximately 25
µm in diameter, containing ingested red blood cells. The nucleus, when visible, has fine, evenly distributed peripheral chromatin and a small, central karyosome. These features are diagnostic for:
- A. Entamoeba coli
- B. Iodamoeba bütschlii
- C. Endolimax nana
- D. Entamoeba histolytica
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 112
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs), such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) in humans and Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) in cattle, are caused by infectious agents composed primarily of:
- A. Aberrantly folded host-encoded prion proteins (PrP<sup>Sc</sup>)
- B. Slow-growing bacteria lacking a cell wall
- C. Defective viral particles requiring a helper virus
- D. Viroids (small, circular RNA molecules)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 113
A patient develops a severe diarrheal illness after consuming raw oysters. Stool cultures grow a Gram- negative, comma-shaped bacterium that is oxidase-positive and grows on thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar, producing green colonies. The MOST likely virulence factor contributing to the watery diarrhea is:
- A. Cholera toxin-like enterotoxin
- B. Heat-labile toxin (LT)
- C. Cytotoxin-associated gene A (CagA)
- D. Shiga toxin
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 114
A patient with a history of travel to Southeast Asia presents with fever, severe headache, and altered mental status. CSF analysis reveals lymphocytic pleocytosis and elevated protein, but routine bacterial and viral cultures are negative. Serological testing of CSF is positive for IgM antibodies against Japanese encephalitis virus. The MOST likely mode of transmission for this infection is:
- A. Respiratory droplets from an infected individual.
- B. Ingestion of contaminated food or water.
- C. Direct contact with infected animals.
- D. Bite of an infected mosquito.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 115
During the processing of stool specimens for ova and parasite examination, the formalin-ethyl acetate concentration procedure primarily serves to:
- A. Separate parasites from fecal debris and concentrate them
- B. Preserve parasite morphology and kill bacteria
- C. Stain parasite nuclei for easier identification
- D. Selectively culture protozoan trophozoites
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 116
A 30-year-old female who recently returned from a hiking trip in the northeastern United States presents to her physician with a two-week history of a slowly expanding, erythematous rash with central clearing on her thigh. She also reports intermittent fatigue, arthralgias, and mild headache. Serological testing reveals a positive IgM and IgG response to Borrelia burgdorferi. Which of the following mechanisms is MOST significant in the pathogenesis of the clinical manifestations observed in this patient?
- A. Induction of a strong pro-inflammatory cytokine response by the host
- B. Production of potent exotoxins leading to direct tissue damage
- C. Evasion of phagocytosis through a thick polysaccharide capsule
- D. Intracellular replication within macrophages leading to disseminated infection
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 117
During an outbreak of norovirus gastroenteritis in a nursing home, environmental swabs are collected to identify the source of the infection. Which of the following methods would be MOST appropriate for detecting norovirus in these samples?
- A. Culture on human embryonic kidney (HEK) cells
- B. Reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)
- C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for viral antigens
- D. Gram staining and microscopy
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 118
Caspofungin, micafungin, and anidulafungin belong to the echinocandin class of antifungal agents. Their primary mechanism of action involves the non-competitive inhibition of:
- A. Nucleic acid synthesis via thymidylate synthase
- B. Ergosterol synthesis via lanosterol demethylase
- C. Fungal protein synthesis via ribosomal binding
- D. Fungal cell wall synthesis via (1#3)-#-D-glucan synthase
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 119
A patient develops a localized skin infection characterized by a painless, progressive ulcer with raised, indurated margins. Microscopic examination of tissue scrapings reveals amastigotes within macrophages. The patient reports recent travel to Central or South America. The MOST likely diagnosis is cutaneous:
- A. Sporotrichosis
- B. Chromoblastomycosis
- C. Leishmaniasis
- D. Myiasis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 120
A patient returning from a hiking trip in a Lyme disease-endemic area presents with a unilateral facial nerve palsy, headache, and neck stiffness. Serological testing for Borrelia burgdorferi by ELISA is positive, but a Western blot shows only IgM bands. The MOST appropriate interpretation of these results is:
- A. The patient has a co-infection with another tick-borne pathogen causing a non-specific IgM response.
- B. The patient has a false-positive ELISA result, and Lyme disease is unlikely.
- C. The patient has early Lyme disease, and the IgM response is characteristic of recent infection.
- D. The patient has chronic Lyme disease with a persistent IgM response.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 121
In a clinical microbiology laboratory, quality control testing of Mueller-Hinton agar used for disk diffusion susceptibility testing involves checking the zone sizes for E. coli ATCC 25922, S. aureus ATCC 25923, and
P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853. What is the primary purpose of including P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853 in this QC?
- A. To confirm the correct pH of the agar medium
- B. To assess the performance of agents primarily active against Gram-positive organisms
- C. To verify the performance of cell wall active agents like penicillin
- D. To ensure appropriate concentration of calcium and magnesium ions affecting aminoglycoside activity
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 122
A microbiology laboratory isolates a Gram-negative rod from a wound infection. The organism is oxidase- negative, ferments lactose on MacConkey agar, and produces indole. The MOST likely identification is:
- A. Proteus mirabilis
- B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- C. Serratia marcescens
- D. Escherichia coli
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 123
A key virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis that plays a major role in immune evasion and is the target for serogrouping is the:
- A. Lipooligosaccharide (LOS) endotoxin
- B. Pili
- C. IgA protease
- D. Polysaccharide capsule
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 124
A patient with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) develops a progressive respiratory illness.
Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid is examined using direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) staining, which reveals numerous cysts of Pneumocystis jirovecii. The cysts appear:
- A. Large and multinucleated with prominent endospores.
- B. Cup-shaped or helmet-shaped with internal structures.
- C. Small and round with a thick wall, containing sporozoites.
- D. Oval-shaped with a thin wall and internal nuclei.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 125
A research laboratory is developing a novel diagnostic assay for early detection of sepsis. They are investigating the use of host biomarkers that are rapidly upregulated in response to bacterial infection. Which of the following biomarkers has shown promise for differentiating between systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and sepsis?
- A. Procalcitonin (PCT)
- B. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
- C. C-reactive protein (CRP)
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 126
Chagas disease, characterized by acute Romana's sign and potential chronic cardiac and gastrointestinal complications, is caused by which vector-borne protozoan parasite?
- A. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
- B. Toxoplasma gondii
- C. Leishmania donovani
- D. Trypanosoma cruzi
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 127
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